Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 07:20
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What defines the k'vanna of the Book of בראשית?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Kuorans can you write a sad story about kpop?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.